A Bank's Balance Sheet in Layman's Terms

From Calculated Risk:

Now imagine the bank starts reporting higher than expected credit losses - or at least depositors believe the bank will start reporting huge loses. 

Here the bank has lost $5 billion, and the capital has been cut in half.

Fearing further losses, the commercial paper (CP) investors run for the hills and refuse to reinvest again when their short term paper matures.

The FDIC insured depositors run (or amble) towards the hills too. A classic bank run.

The long term debt holders are stuck. They can sell in the market, but at a lower price - and that doesn't impact the bank's balance sheet (OK, there are some accounting issues here that I will ignore).

To stop the bank run, the FDIC stepped up and increased the guarantee on FDIC insured assets to $250 thousand. But this did nothing for the commercial paper investors. 

Next the Fed steps in and replaces the commercial paper liability as it matures.

If this was just a panic, and the bank was actually fine, the commercial paper investors would return (or the bank could sell more long term debt), and the Fed would be replaced by private debt.

However this is not just a liquidity crisis, and the Fed is still providing liquidity to the banks.

This doesn't work long term because the Fed requires the banks to over collateralize any money borrowed from the Fed. As the long term debt starts to mature, those investors will follow the commercial paper investors to the hills - and the Fed will have to provide more and more liquidity. And eventually there will not be enough collateral to borrow from the Fed. Here is an example of the Collateral Margins Table for the discount window.

Part II also found on Calculated Risk:

The larger problem is the toxic assets (now known as legacy assets). These are mostly related to residential real estate, but there are many other toxic loans (Construction & Development, foreign loans, LBO PE loans, etc.)

The banks are facing huge additional losses for these legacy assets, and these losses will make some banks "balance sheet" insolvent (liabilities will be great than assets). However, the bank is not insolvent in the business sense, because the bank can still pay their debts as they come due - at least for now.

.....

Basically the goal is to replace the legacy assets with money from the MLEC, TARP (original plan) or the PPIP.

All of these programs suffer from the same problem. If they buyer's pay too little, the banks will be insolvent, and if the buyer's pay too much for the assets, this is a transfer of wealth from the buyers to the stakeholders of the banks.

The Geithner approach is to keep injecting capital into the banks to cover the losses. This is known as the "Zombie" bank approach.

In essence the balance sheet looks like this with liabilities greater than total assets. To make the zombie balance sheet "balance", I've added "??????" to the assets.

These "??????" assets are either future retained earnings or additional money from the government. Although the bank is balance sheet insolvent, the bank will never be business insolvent because the government will continue to provide money to cover losses.

If only a small percentage of financial assets are held by zombie banks, then this approach will probably work. These banks will be crippled, but the other banks can meet the financing needs of the economy.

This is why the stress tests are so important in helping identify zombie banks - and why financial institutions relying on government support should be required to make the entire test results public. If there are too many zombies, we need to insist on